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johnnyg08

Legal pitching motion? Why or why not?

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1 hour ago, MadMax said:

Why wouldn't it be legal, @johnnyg08?

I have it as legal too fwiw.

So a manager comes out and tells you that he is using an illegal pitching motion....

How do you respond to him?  That's my reason for posting the video.  

I was asked to grab a video clip of this particular delivery.  

What I will say is that it has made its way through some pretty high circles of umpires.

 

 

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3 minutes ago, johnnyg08 said:

So a manager comes out and tells you that he is using an illegal pitching motion....

How do you respond to him? 

No, it's not.

 

I have it as legal.

 

I understand what you are seeing / saying, but he's fine.

 

Yes, I agree it's weird / different.  It's still good.

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The only issue I could see being made about it is if it's in a Fed game, or being played in a non-Fed game by predominantly Fed-playing participants. Something about how if he's employing the stretch, he has to do it properly, or that he's starting off to the side and coming set, or what-not. Like you, when there are no runners on, I don't see an issue.

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The question is what is his TOP if he ever does it with runners. I have a windup with TOP as first movement of the leg after his hands are together.

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For FED rules, which is pretty much all I do, seems he comes close to violating the "After he starts his movement to pitch, he must continue the motion without interruption or alteration" provision of the pitching rules.  

Watching the video it seems he is right on the verge of coming to a stop which would be an interruption, be never really does.

Just to be sure, are you guys also saying he continues his motion without interruption?

Odd delivery for sure.

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28 minutes ago, James88 said:

Just to be sure, are you guys also saying he continues his motion without interruption?

That's what I have. 

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12 minutes ago, Sut'n Blue said:

What would you have with runners on?

An easy stolen base?

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2 hours ago, Sut'n Blue said:

What would you have with runners on?

Under some codes (FED) and maybe by some umpires, it might get interpreted as a set position and a balk for not coming set.

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14 hours ago, Sut'n Blue said:

What would you have with runners on?

He seems to sometimes come to a stop and other times not. If he comes to a stop, no biggie. If he doesn't, I'm calling it.

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Playing a little devils advocate:

MLB rules state there are "two legal pitching positions", the windup and the set and either position may be used at any time.  This position looks like a combination of the two.  He initially starts from what looks like a fairly typical windup.  But then he comes set.  If I determined that he was pitching from the stretch then I could get him for coming set twice.  If I determine that he was pitching from the wind-up then he switches to a set doesn't this rule apply?

In disengaging the rubber the pitcher must step off with his pivot foot and not his free foot first. He may not go into a set or stretch position—if he does it is a balk.

This of course would only apply with runners on.

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1 hour ago, maquinn78 said:

So, in MLB I've always thought that Jake Arrieta has a weird motion, in that it's almost the same before he pitches with runners on and no runners on. Can they be similar but different?

No runners on

Runner on

That's the key.  Don't try learning pitching rules from MLB.

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