R3 stealing home, balk

[Thunderheads]

I guess you can see just about everything at a game .... like one of these type of balks ....

[maven]

I'll wait for someone to ask whether he didn't disengage prior to throwing home....

[UmpJeff]

I'll wait for someone to ask whether he didn't disengage prior to throwing home....

​

Let us hope not.

[ElkOil]

*Sigh*    Okay, here I go...

I understand the purpose of the balk rule is to prevent the pitcher from deceiving the runner.  When the runner is already stealing, there can be no deception.  So I don't get why a pitcher can balk when the runner is on the move.  If the answer is so the pitcher doesn't gain an unfair advantage, that doesn't seem to hold much water, particularly in this example.

Annnnnd... let me have it.

[maven]

*Sigh*    Okay, here I go...

I understand the purpose of the balk rule is to prevent the pitcher from deceiving the runner.  When the runner is already stealing, there can be no deception.  So I don't get why a pitcher can balk when the runner is on the move.  If the answer is so the pitcher doesn't gain an unfair advantage, that doesn't seem to hold much water, particularly in this example.

Annnnnd... let me have it.

​C'mon now: you're asking a perfectly legitimate question, namely, which provision of the pitching restrictions did he violate?

Would you like first shot at answering it? I recommend not starting with the old "deceiving the runner" business: deceiving the runner is not illegal; illegally deceiving the runner is illegal, and that means you need to know which actions are illegal.

[Thunderheads]

@ElkOil .... when did F1 disengage (if at all) ....

that answer will / should make it clear ......

[goody14]

*Sigh*    Okay, here I go...

I understand the purpose of the balk rule is to prevent the pitcher from deceiving the runner.  When the runner is already stealing, there can be no deception.  So I don't get why a pitcher can balk when the runner is on the move.  If the answer is so the pitcher doesn't gain an unfair advantage, that doesn't seem to hold much water, particularly in this example.

Annnnnd... let me have it.

Imagine this runner started on first instead of third. It would be a huge advantage to start a windup and then just step off and not complete the pitch.

[grayhawk]

*Sigh*    Okay, here I go...

I understand the purpose of the balk rule is to prevent the pitcher from deceiving the runner.  When the runner is already stealing, there can be no deception.  So I don't get why a pitcher can balk when the runner is on the move.  If the answer is so the pitcher doesn't gain an unfair advantage, that doesn't seem to hold much water, particularly in this example.

Annnnnd... let me have it.

​By disengaging illegally AFTER he has committed to pitch, the defense has absolutely gained an advantage over the offense.  If the offense was planning on a squeeze, they would be screwed because the batter can only bunt a PITCH, not a throw.

[Jimurray]

Just to confirm, if he had not stepped off, the speed up of the delivery would be legal.

[Dbellyflop]

8.05 with a runner or runners on base,  it is a balk when-

(a) the pitcher, while touching his plate, makes any motion naturally associated with his pitch and fails to make such a delivery.

 

as soon as he stepped back, he was committed to pitch, when he stepped back with his pivot foot, he failed to make his pitch.....

 

[kstrunk]

​By disengaging illegally AFTER he has committed to pitch, the defense has absolutely gained an advantage over the offense.  If the offense was planning on a squeeze, they would be screwed because the batter can only bunt a PITCH, not a throw.

​This is exactly what just explained to my wife!