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Showing results for tags 'illegal pitch'.
Found 4 results
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F1 works from the set/stretch even though there is no base runner. Must he still come to "a complete and discernable stop" between his stretch and delivery?
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don't see this very often ........ Your browser does not support iframes.
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I have never seen a pitcher do what I saw in yesterday’s FED game, which was 1/4 finals of county tourney. F1 for home team is the dominant pitcher in the county and has (had) an unblemished record as a sophomore. He has used this motion all year without anyone making him alter it. With no runners, righty F1 starts with his pivot foot parallel to the rubber with his non-pivot foot also parallel to the rubber at a comfortable shoulder’s width apart. While standing erect on the mound, with his torso facing 3B, he took his sign with his hands at his sides. He then brought his hands together as he raised them over his head, stepped back with his non-pivot foot, twisting his torso so that he was facing HP, and continued his delivery so that it appeared more like a windup than a set position. With runners, he started in the same exact way, but he went through his windup in a traditional set position procedure. Opposing coach wanted to know if the first scenario was legal. I told him that the delivery appeared to me to be a new wrinkle on the set position, but F1 was not doing anything specifically that violated any pitching restrictions because there were no stops and the motion was continuous. My partner and I discussed it and we both came to the same conclusion that weird did not equal illegal. Our view was that he was pitching from the set position in both scenarios. Thoughts? Did we miss it? Fire away!
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So I'm in the field umpiring a 13-15 (Jr league) year old All-Star game. We are sanctioned under LL rules. First baseman decides he wants to be lazy and stands behind first toward the coaches box with both feet in foul territory at time of the pitch. I call illegal pitch and advance R1 from 3rd and R2 from 1st. After double checking the rule book this morning, I'm wondering whether I'm right or not. It says "at start of game and when ball is put into play" 4:03. I would normally have missed this but I was already upset at the lack of effort shown by the team in the field so I was also trying to get their attention. Never mind that my partner never properly puts the ball in play after stoppages, was I right to call this? I always thought it was time of pitch and only catcher can be in foul territory.
