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Everything posted by mrumpiresir

  1. Does the trail runner need to completely pass the lead runner or is he out if any part of him passes the lead runner? Please supply an official interpretation if you have one.
  2. No, it didn't happen to me. I know the rule I just needed to prove to an idiot who thinks it is an immediate dead ball.
  3. When does the ball become dead when the umpire interferes with the catcher trying to throw out a runner who is stealing?
  4. mrumpiresir

    Foul ball?

    Yes, if it went into foul territory before passing first base. If the ball passes first base and then goes into foul territory, it would be a fair ball.
  5. Game tied, bottom of the tenth, home team batting, 1 out, runners on first and third. Batter hits a deep fly ball that is caught, with the runner on third tags and scores easily. Runner on first plays the fly ball halfway, and in the celebration never returns to first. Defensive team appeals to first base. Does the run count and is the game over? I don't know, but I'm guessing it has something to do with the thread being 4 months old? Why has no one corrected this in four months? I'm somewhat surprised because people here usually point out incorrect comments.
  6. Let's allow our drinking buddies to call it whatever they want but I am a strong believer that umpires should use the proper terminology. I have learned a lot about the nuances and the differences between the rule sets because of this forum and recommend it to umpire friends of mine. It totally amazes me how little the lay person knows about the rules to the game.
  7. Maven, forgive me because I haven't been on this forum in a long time. What does ~*~ mean?
  8. I have pretty much retired from doing a lot of games after 30 years of umpiring and have not visited this forum in a long time. What you stated in the past was wrong and I just wanted to correct that. Forgive me for pointing out that incorrect information.
  9. Why do you think the game would not be over? Yes and Yes would be the correct answer.
  10. Just to be accurate, there is never a force play at first base.
  11. No, that is not correct. The penalty for a balk; PENALTY: The ball is dead, and each runner shall advance one base without liability to be put out, unless the batter reaches first on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, in which case the play proceeds without reference to the balk. The phrase " MAY without liability to be put out" means just what it says. He may advance without putting himself in peril of being put out. The offense has no choice on the balk.
  12. Thanks for the replies. But I also want to know where the idea that the pitcher cannot move his free foot first comes from. Is that a thing to be concerned with?
  13. A spin move as shown in the first play in this video;
  14. Yes I agree, but is the spin move from the rubber technically a balk? Why do some people say moving the free foot first is a balk?
  15. Over the years I have heard that the spin move by a right handed pitcher is technically a balk but I cannot see what rule is violated. Some people have said you cannot move your front foot first when a right hander does the spin move. If that were true, he could never step and throw to third base or do the spaghetti move. So, exactly why is this technically a balk? REPLY
  16. Absolutely a balk if he hangs the leg. Maybe I could have been more clear on my question. Is bringing the free leg to the balance point then stepping to first a direct step to first?
  17. I've been curious about this for some time. Is it a balk for left handed pitcher to bring his leg up to the balance point, not moving toward the plate, then step and throw to first? Or does it violate the step directly to the base rule? I think I've seen it called both ways. www.youtube.com/watch?v=KFS3mtTBq7o
  18. MSgt, USAF, retired after 21 years of service. Aircraft Avionics Technician
  19. mrumpiresir


    # 1 is a balk. Once the pitcher starts his motion he is committed to deliver the pitch. If he is going to step off the rubber he must do it prior to any motion associated with his delivery. 5.08 (a) (1) The Windup Position The pitcher shall stand facing the batter, his pivot foot in contact with the pitcher’s plate and the other foot free. From this position any natural movement associated with his delivery of the ball to the batter commits him to the pitch without interruption or alteration. He shall not raise either foot from the ground, except that in his actual delivery of the ball to the batter, he may take one step backward, and one step forward with his free foot. When a pitcher holds the ball with both hands in front of his body, with his pivot foot in contact with the pitcher’s plate and Rule 5.07(a) 34 his other foot free, he will be considered in the Windup Position.
  20. No. No umpire can overrule another umpire.
  21. The offensive team NEVER has a choice on a balk under the 13 violations listed under 6.02 (a). The rule you posted is for delivering a pitch which is put in play when violations of the following occur; (2) expectorate on the ball, either hand or his glove; (3) rub the ball on his glove, person or clothing; (4) apply a foreign substance of any kind to the ball; (5) deface the ball in any manner; or (6) deliver a ball altered in a manner prescribed by Rule 6.02(c)(2) through (5) or what is called the “shine” ball, “spit” ball, “mud” ball or “emery” ball. The pitcher is allowed to rub the ball between his bare hands. (7) Have on his person, or in his possession, any foreign substance.
  22. mrumpiresir

    F6 & R1

    You're right, as usual. I misread the OP.
  23. mrumpiresir

    F6 & R1

    It seems there is agreement that the FPSR was not violated. Could not the subsequent contact beyond the base be considered interference by a retired runner?
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