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MLB Balk Rule


BlueMagic
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Is there anywhere I can find a concise summary of the MLB balk rule? I’m used to Fed rules and am unsure about the offensive team’s options under the MLB balk rule.

Scenario: Runner on first. 3-0 count on batter. Balk called, pitch is delivered and it’s ball four. Does the batter return with a 3-0 count with the runner now on 2nd, or does he get to take the result of the pitch and the base on balls?

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If the batter and all runners advance at least one base, the balk is ignored and the ball remains alive.

OBR rule 6.02(a) PENALTY: The ball is dead, and each runner shall advance one base without liability to be put out, unless the batter reaches first on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, in which case the play proceeds without reference to the balk.

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So in your particular case, the result of the play is that the batter and the only baserunner *did* advance one base, so the balk is ignored.

If that runner had been on 2nd base instead of first, we still let the play run through. If R2 (the runner who started on 2nd) advanced to 3rd*, then the balk is ignored. But if R2 is still standing on 2nd, the result of the play is that we enforce the balk - so R2 goes to 3rd, the batter goes back to the plate with a 3-0 count.

*which often happens when a balk is called - the runner will advance and the defense will not attempt to get the out, not realizing that they can - not that it will affect the baserunner (he still gets 3rd), but that it will affect the batter.

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6 hours ago, kylehutson said:

So in your particular case, the result of the play is that the batter and the only baserunner *did* advance one base, so the balk is ignored.

If that runner had been on 2nd base instead of first, we still let the play run through. If R2 (the runner who started on 2nd) advanced to 3rd*, then the balk is ignored. But if R2 is still standing on 2nd, the result of the play is that we enforce the balk - so R2 goes to 3rd, the batter goes back to the plate with a 3-0 count.

*which often happens when a balk is called - the runner will advance and the defense will not attempt to get the out, not realizing that they can - not that it will affect the baserunner (he still gets 3rd), but that it will affect the batter.

Thank you.

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8 hours ago, Senor Azul said:

If the batter and all runners advance at least one base, the balk is ignored and the ball remains alive.

OBR rule 6.02(a) PENALTY: The ball is dead, and each runner shall advance one base without liability to be put out, unless the batter reaches first on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, in which case the play proceeds without reference to the balk.

Thank you.

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Get the MLB Umpire's Manual (you can buy it online...just google it).  It has more case plays involving this one rule than any other rule.  It has a LOT of case plays.

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9 hours ago, BlueMagic said:

Thank you.

Don’t thank him. He got it wrong with R2 unless it was ball four wild pitch. The MLBUM has a section on when to call time on a balk. With R2 and a caught ball 4 you call time when the pitch is caught by the catcher. The balk is enforced and R2 is awarded  3B and the batter stays at the plate with 3 balls. 

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14 hours ago, kylehutson said:

So in your particular case, the result of the play is that the batter and the only baserunner *did* advance one base, so the balk is ignored.

If that runner had been on 2nd base instead of first, we still let the play run through. If R2 (the runner who started on 2nd) advanced to 3rd*, then the balk is ignored. But if R2 is still standing on 2nd, the result of the play is that we enforce the balk - so R2 goes to 3rd, the batter goes back to the plate with a 3-0 count.

*which often happens when a balk is called - the runner will advance and the defense will not attempt to get the out, not realizing that they can - not that it will affect the baserunner (he still gets 3rd), but that it will affect the batter.

Your R2 Sit is incorrect unless it is ball four wild pitch.  @noumpere posted the MLBUM when to call time verbiage a while ago. He might want to repost it in this thread. 

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19 hours ago, BlueMagic said:

Is there anywhere I can find a concise summary of the MLB balk rule? I’m used to Fed rules and am unsure about the offensive team’s options under the MLB balk rule.

Scenario: Runner on first. 3-0 count on batter. Balk called, pitch is delivered and it’s ball four. Does the batter return with a 3-0 count with the runner now on 2nd, or does he get to take the result of the pitch and the base on balls?

This is not concise but it is a good summary from PBUC/MLBUM courtesy of @noumpere. Second page, fourth post down.

 

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12 hours ago, Jimurray said:

I linked a thread with @noumpere s post but it keeps disappearing. 

Since I posted earlier in the thread, I got it in my email. Thank you for that.

Apparently I was, indeed, wrong. I hate when that happens. @BlueMagic - listen to what they said instead of me.

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11 hours ago, kylehutson said:

No shame in admitting you're wrong.

Insisting you're still right on the other hand...

My goal is just to not make the same mistake twice!

Literal reading of only the rule would not have you wrong and probably nobody would blink an eye if you left R2 at 3B. The MLBUM wording of "actual pitch" and the #5 "unless all runners advance one base because of ball four" wording are what clarifies the rule but not every umpire knows to buy an MLBUM or MilBUM every year or two. I wonder if this is even covered in any amateur OBR/NCAA clinics? 

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Where is the most updated MLBUM available, anyway? I've checked the Wendelstedt Umpire School store website, and the latest version I can find is 2016. If batter and runner advance, I'd leave it as it is, because the spirit of the rule is fulfilled (the balk did not prevent R2 from advancing, so no reason to punish the pitcher twice). This is the reason why if there is a balk, the ball is put in play, and everyone advances at least one base (think home run), the batted ball (HR) counts, not the balk. 

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16 hours ago, Jimurray said:

Added the red.

That works. Thanks! 

Since we're going there would it make more sense to acknowledge, the enforce or disregard? 

Thinking that we should always acknowledge it if we're going to enforce or disregard?

Your thoughts? 

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On 7/18/2018 at 11:14 AM, Jimurray said:

Literal reading of only the rule would not have you wrong and probably nobody would blink an eye if you left R2 at 3B. The MLBUM wording of "actual pitch" and the #5 "unless all runners advance one base because of ball four" wording are what clarifies the rule but not every umpire knows to buy an MLBUM or MilBUM every year or two. I wonder if this is even covered in any amateur OBR/NCAA clinics? 

I'm not being argumentative and understand what the manual says, but the rule doesn't say "because" of ball four (or at least not the rule that was posted on this page). So it seems like the manual is changing the rule to me. Result of the pitch was that the batter reached first and all other runners did in fact advance a base. The rule doesn't require it's because of the base on balls does it? I would definitely have made the "mistake" of letting it go without enforcing the balk but I'm just confused why the manual seems to add requirements that the rulebook doesn't?

ETA: Is it because once the catcher catches the pitch the play is "over" as opposed to if it's a wild pitch or put in play? So what if the pitch hits the dirt and bounces off the catcher out in front of the plate? If the catcher picks it up before the runner reaches third it's a balk and if he doesn't then you ignore the balk?

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22 minutes ago, mwest5575 said:

I'm not being argumentative and understand what the manual says, but the rule doesn't say "because" of ball four (or at least not the rule that was posted on this page). So it seems like the manual is changing the rule to me. Result of the pitch was that the batter reached first and all other runners did in fact advance a base. The rule doesn't require it's because of the base on balls does it? I would definitely have made the "mistake" of letting it go without enforcing the balk but I'm just confused why the manual seems to add requirements that the rulebook doesn't?

ETA: Is it because once the catcher catches the pitch the play is "over" as opposed to if it's a wild pitch or put in play? So what if the pitch hits the dirt and bounces off the catcher out in front of the plate? If the catcher picks it up before the runner reaches third it's a balk and if he doesn't then you ignore the balk?

For the bolded, considered as a WP, the interp says the umpire "shall not call "Time"
until all play has ceased (runners have stopped trying to advance and an fielder is in
possession of the ball in the infield)." 

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1 hour ago, johnnyg08 said:

That works. Thanks! 

Since we're going there would it make more sense to acknowledge, the enforce or disregard? 

Thinking that we should always acknowledge it if we're going to enforce or disregard?

Your thoughts? 

Acknowledgement would only happen on a wild pitch where R1, lets say, advanced to 2B safely or 3B safely or thrown out. You acknowledge the balk for the batter.

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11 minutes ago, Jimurray said:

Acknowledgement would only happen on a wild pitch where R1, lets say, advanced to 2B safely or 3B safely or thrown out. You acknowledge the balk for the batter.

But if you have a balk, you should call a balk at the time of the balk yes? Perhaps it is the base umpire? 

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