By Mad Mike
OBR Rule Set:
Runner on First, outs don't matter. Pitcher rolls through coming set, delivers ball (count was 2-1). Umpires call "Balk". Batter takes pitch without swinging. R1 stealing on the pitch. Catcher throws it into centerfield.
R1 rounds second and heads for third.
I think there was an error when the "Time" was called and the runner was placed back at second. R1 should have been allowed to advance at his own jeopardy. If he made third, then bonus for him. If he was thrown out, then under OBR-he is out. We would nullify the pitch and play on, correct?
I believe this was confused with an interference call where if the catcher does not retire the runner on the immediate throw-we kill the play.
Any comments and/or rule references would be appreciated.
Hi all ...
I'm losing my mind .... (at least I think I am) but .... A dropped ball by a pitcher is a balk (that doesn't cross the foul line) ONLY if he's touching the pitchers plate, yes? Why do I think I remember seeing "either on the rubber or straddling" ?? All I'm finding is 6-2-4a
OBR. R1, stealing on the pitch. The pitcher using the set position balks by failing to come to a discernible stop but delivers the pitch. The batter lays down a bunt. F2 fields the batted ball and throws out the batter-runner at 1B. Obviously we have a no-pitch and we will enforce the balk. Because the batter did not achieve 1B, do we kill the play immediately when the out is recorded at 1B, regardless the location of R1? If R1 was already on 3B when the out was recorded, is R1 still returned to 2B?
R1 and R2 (on 1B and 2B, of course). The pitcher balks with a feint to 1B, then throws the ball past 1B. R2 scores, but R1 (who dove back to 1B and was slow to advance), is tagged out while attempting to reach 2B. So we enforce the balk. Obviously R1 gets 2B. Is R2 returned to 3B?
10U Travel ball. At this age you see some weird things!
RHP with runner on first. F1 lifts left leg (knee up), pivots, steps toward first and throws to F3 on the bag. Pivot foot stays on/near the rubber. Would this be a balk or legal play?
My thinking at the time is that he is doing the same thing a LHP would do. Namely lifting the non-pivot leg and then stepping directly toward first.
On reflection, I could see this as illegal, as he started his normal pitching motion (left leg lift) and did not complete the pitch. But then why doesn't this apply to LHP? Does RHP need to move the pivot foot first when making a pickoff move?