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Run scored on double play
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Question
Guest CoachBill
1 out, bases loaded and the batter hits a ground ball to the shortstop, who tags the runner going from 2nd to 3rd (2nd out);
the runner from first gets in a rundown as the batter-runner reaches 1st base. The runner scores from 3rd base before the
runner between 1st and 2nd is tagged out. Since the runner was not put out by touching the 2nd base bag (being forced out),
isn't this a timing play due to the tag putting out the runner?
Thanks
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udbrky 4 posts
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udbrky
Why wouldn't they just touch 2B? If R1 did not acquire 2B, it's a force out. No runs score.
maven
Even if he did, it could still be a force out...just sayin'! Agree with the answers posted.
WilsonFlyer
I've seen this done appearing to be on purpose by offenses betting on the fact that they will find an inexperienced umpire that will allow run to count.
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