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Guest Anonymous Giraffe

Questions on Interference / Right to a base

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Guest Anonymous Giraffe

According to the OBR Rule Set, if a batter, batter-runner, or runner commit interference, the ball is dead, the person who interfered is out, and all runners return to base last legally held at time of interference. 

Quote

6.01(a) If the umpire declares the batter, batter-runner, or a runner out for interference, all other runners shall return to the last base that was in the judgment of the umpire, legally touched at the time of the interference

Theoretical Situation: Bases loaded, no outs. R1 is much faster than R2, and catches up with him around the bases.  Hard hit to F5 right down 3BL. R3 interferes with F5s ability to field the ball, and interference was called. At the time of penalty, R1 had touched 2nd base and R2 had not yet touched 3rd base. Thus, at the time of the penalty, both of these runners theoretically would be entitled to 2nd base as it was the base last touched at the time of penalty. 

 

What happens to these runners?

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Guest ftb2ss

A runner is not legally entitled to a base until the preceding run is either out or attains the next base legally. 

In your above example:

R3 BRI results in dead ball. 

All proceeding runners return to the base last occupied.

BR is awarded 1st base forcing all runners to advance 1 base since they are forced. 

Therefore Bases loaded 1 out.

 

Keep in mind that if R1 passed R2 that is also an out and if the umpire judges that the BRI was to prevent a double play that R2 could also be called out.

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48 minutes ago, Guest Anonymous Giraffe said:

According to the OBR Rule Set, if a batter, batter-runner, or runner commit interference, the ball is dead, the person who interfered is out, and all runners return to base last legally held at time of interference. 

Theoretical Situation: Bases loaded, no outs. R1 is much faster than R2, and catches up with him around the bases.  Hard hit to F5 right down 3BL. R3 interferes with F5s ability to field the ball, and interference was called. At the time of penalty, R1 had touched 2nd base and R2 had not yet touched 3rd base. Thus, at the time of the penalty, both of these runners theoretically would be entitled to 2nd base as it was the base last touched at the time of penalty. 

 

What happens to these runners?

AS you can tell from the responses, your play does not seem to address your real issue because BR gets first, forcing all the other runners.

 

But, take the play where bases are loaded, BR grounds out to first, then R3 gets in a rundown between third and home (where else!?)  During the rundown, both R1 and R2 advance to third.  Then, R3 interferes.  Ruling:  R2 returns to second; R1 returns to first.  Since no one was forced, third still "belonged" to R3.  That means, R2 can't advance on the INT and must return.  Similar logic for R1.

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10 minutes ago, noumpere said:

But, take the play where bases are loaded, BR grounds out to first, then R3 gets in a rundown between third and home (where else!?)  During the rundown, both R1 and R2 advance to third.  Then, R3 interferes.  Ruling:  R2 returns to second; R1 returns to first.  Since no one was forced, third still "belonged" to R3.  That means, R2 can't advance on the INT and must return.  Similar logic for R1.

If that seems needlessly punitive, remember that we don't want the offense to benefit in any way from their illegal act. Allowing runners to move up behind an interfering runner would be a benefit.

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On 10/13/2017 at 12:08 PM, noumpere said:

AS you can tell from the responses, your play does not seem to address your real issue because BR gets first, forcing all the other runners.

 

But, take the play where bases are loaded, BR grounds out to first, then R3 gets in a rundown between third and home (where else!?)  During the rundown, both R1 and R2 advance to third.  Then, R3 interferes.  Ruling:  R2 returns to second; R1 returns to first.  Since no one was forced, third still "belonged" to R3.  That means, R2 can't advance on the INT and must return.  Similar logic for R1.

In case anybody wanted the supporting comment (I know I did). 

Quote

Rule 6.01(a) Penalty for Interference Comment (Rule 7.08(b) Comment):

... If, in a run-down between third base and home plate, the succeeding runner has advanced and is standing on third base when the runner in a run-down is called out for offensive interference, the umpire shall send the runner standing on third base back to second base. This same principle applies if there is a run-down between second and third base and succeeding runner has reached second (the reasoning is that no runner shall advance on an interference play and a runner is considered to occupy a base until he legally has reached the next succeeding base).

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On 10/13/2017 at 2:17 PM, Guest Anonymous Giraffe said:

According to the OBR Rule Set, if a batter, batter-runner, or runner commit interference, the ball is dead, the person who interfered is out, and all runners return to base last legally held at time of interference. 

Theoretical Situation: Bases loaded, no outs. R1 is much faster than R2, and catches up with him around the bases.  Hard hit to F5 right down 3BL. R3 interferes with F5s ability to field the ball, and interference was called. At the time of penalty, R1 had touched 2nd base and R2 had not yet touched 3rd base. Thus, at the time of the penalty, both of these runners theoretically would be entitled to 2nd base as it was the base last touched at the time of penalty. 

 

What happens to these runners?

If forced they advance.   B-R forced R1 to 2B and R2 to 3B.

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