10U Travel ball. At this age you see some weird things!
RHP with runner on first. F1 lifts left leg (knee up), pivots, steps toward first and throws to F3 on the bag. Pivot foot stays on/near the rubber. Would this be a balk or legal play?
My thinking at the time is that he is doing the same thing a LHP would do. Namely lifting the non-pivot leg and then stepping directly toward first.
On reflection, I could see this as illegal, as he started his normal pitching motion (left leg lift) and did not complete the pitch. But then why doesn't this apply to LHP? Does RHP need to move the pivot foot first when making a pickoff move?
This happened during a game one of my fellow umpires was working. I was asked the question on whether this is a balk or not. Hopefully I can describe it well enough for you all to give me your thoughts. I wasn't there, so this is based on how it was described to me.
NFHS: F1 starts in the stretch, leaning in to get his signs. Once he does, he begins to come set. During his motion to come set, his non pivot foot comes to a complete stop, but the F1 continued to bounce his hands (still together) up and down in front of his body from about navel to sternum. After a couple of bounces, he comes to a complete & discernible stop prior to delivering the pitch. A balk was called, because - I was told - the hand movement did not constitute one continuous motion.
I was under the impression that as long as something was moving during the motion to come set then it was part of "one continuous motion." If he had paused completely at some point and then did the hand bounce, I can see the balk for a double set. But since the hands were moving from his initial move to come set, he was OK as long as he came to a complete stop prior to delivery. If there was no complete stop then you could get the no-stop balk.
Is this a balk? I think there is a MLB pitcher who does something similar, but I can't think of his name.
Thanks for the input.
Fed rules. RHP. R1 and R2 with one out. F3 is playing behind runner at 1st (F1). F1 steps and throws to 1B. Throw is not to F3, but is straight at the bag. F3 does not catch the pick-off, but does is quickly into possession after ball hits wall close to 1B. Is this a balk in the FED book?
Had 2 different situations in our game tonight I want to ask the group and see if we did it right. FED Varsity.
Visiting Team is batting. #12 is up to bat with a 3-0 count. Home team coach comes and out and mentions "The lineup says #19 is supposed to be at bat, they don't have a #12 on the lineup anywhere." The coach wanted an out which was incorrect no matter what since even if it was an incorrect batter, the correct batter would take over the count.
I ruled that he had the proper name of the player written even if he had written the wrong number down and therefore he was the proper batter. Is this correct?
Runner on 2nd. Runner breaks for 3rd. Pitcher steps and throws to 3rd without disengaging. My partner ruled this a balk. I thought you could step and throw to an unoccupied base for the purposes of making a play without disengaging. What's the correct ruling here? We stuck with his call since I wasn't positive.
And for a fun way to start, we had to eject a player in the bottom of the 1st inning. R1 got in a rundown between 1st and 2nd on a pickoff. Ended up being tagged around the head/face area and didn't like it but the play was fine. No MC or intent, just a baseball play. I was PU. R1 got in the face of the kid who tagged him. My partner broke them up and warned them both to not say another word. As R1 is going back towards his dugout he yells for the whole park to hear "tell him not to hit me in the f-ing face." I promptly acknowledged his desire to no longer participate.