Two runners occupying 2nd base

[Guest Roy]

Runner@1st base((R1),runner at 2nd base(R2).The batter thinks she received 4 balls and starts to 1st base both runners advance ,R1 reaches 2nd base has acquired possession of 2nd base before R2 reaches 3rd base and realizes she didn't have to advance because it was a 2-2 count and try's to go back to 2nd base. R1 refuses to go back to 1st base creating two runners on bag,a tag was made to R2 while standing on 2nd bag ...the inning ended w/R2 being called out and R1 allowed to stay on 2nd base. What is the right call?

[ricka56]

If the umpire doesn't call TIME to prevent a $#!+show, then R2 is legally entitled to 2B, and can not be tagged out if touching 2B. R1 does not not have such protection and would be out if tagged while on 2B. 

If the umpire thinks that it was his action/inaction that caused the runners to be put in jeopardy, he can reset the situation and put runners back on 2B/1B.  

[noumpere]

1 hour ago, Guest Roy said:

the inning ended w/R2 being called out and R1 allowed to stay on 2nd base. What is the right call?

In addition to what ricka56 said, no runner should have been allowed to stay on the base once the inning had ended. 

[Jimurray]

1 hour ago, ricka56 said:

If the umpire doesn't call TIME to prevent a $#!+show, then R2 is legally entitled to 2B, and can not be tagged out if touching 2B. R1 does not not have such protection and would be out if tagged while on 2B. 

If the umpire thinks that it was his action/inaction that caused the runners to be put in jeopardy, he can reset the situation and put runners back on 2B/1B.  

If both runners touched the next base wouldn't R1 be entitled to 2B?

[ricka56]

11 minutes ago, Jimurray said:

If both runners touched the next base wouldn't R1 be entitled to 2B?

yes, I think so ... I didn't interpret the OP that R2 touched 3B, but reached could mean the same thing. If so, then the call was probably correct.

[Rich Ives]

1 hour ago, Jimurray said:

If both runners touched the next base wouldn't R1 be entitled to 2B?

I don't think so. R2 can retreat (not forced here) unless the pitcher had taken his position on the rubber.

[Jimurray]

15 minutes ago, Rich Ives said:

I don't think so. R2 can retreat (not forced here) unless the pitcher had taken his position on the rubber.

I think you are right. R2 can force R1 back to 1B:

Rule 5.09(b)(10) Comment (Rule 7.08(i) Comment): If a run- ner touches an unoccupied base and then thinks the ball was caught or is decoyed into returning to the base he last touched, he may be put out running back to that base, but if he reaches the previously occupied base safely he cannot be put out while in contact with that base. 

[BretMan]

Anytime there are two runners on one base...

IF the lead runner is forced (not the case on this play) then the base offers that runner no protection and he may be tagged out.

IF the lead runner is not forced (as on this play) then the base offers no protection to the trailing runner and he may be tagged out.

For the play in question, R1 was the one liable to be tagged out. R2 should not have been called out.

[beerguy55]

No, until the pitcher takes the rubber for the next batter R2 is entitled to second base, R1 is not (if both are on the base at the same time).   They would have had to tag R1, and out of habit a good defensive player will simply tag both runners and let the ump sort it out.

[Stk004]

Just to make a clear point, R1 is only out while on second base if he's standing on 2B while R2 is also standing on second base. If R1 is on 2B and R2 is halfway to third and the defense tags R1, he's perfectly fine. 

[beerguy55]

On 4/29/2017 at 9:26 PM, Stk004 said:

Just to make a clear point, R1 is only out while on second base if he's standing on 2B while R2 is also standing on second base

If tagged.   That may seem obvious, but likely isn't.

If nobody tags him both runners can stand on the base all day long.