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If a pitcher's Windup position is very similar to a set position with runner/s on bases he has to announce this windup pitching to umpires under rule 5.07(a)(2) Comment. Is there a balk if he announces Windup and uses the set motion?

Fed rules. RHP. R1 and R2 with one out. F3 is playing behind runner at 1st (F1). F1 steps and throws to 1B. Throw is not to F3, but is straight at the bag. F3 does not catch the pick-off, but does is quickly into possession after ball hits wall close to 1B. Is this a balk in the FED book?

Ok ... I got this ad from Wilson on my Facebook feed today and for fun ...I posted the following: HYPOTHETICAL: Your first HS game starts with the pitcher walking to the mound with this new customized Wilson glove. What do you do.... NOW .... I did this primarily because although TECHNICALLY ILLEGAL ...the amount of gray isn't egregious and I thought, well maybe I see if something is said, as to not be a "Barney Fife" and be an OOO right out of the gate. Thoughts?

Do you agree with the umpire's call in this clip? I have no idea if the rule set they are using is FED, OBR, or something else though.

The 2016 FED 1-4-2 has a change that pitchers can only wear a solid black or dark compression sleeve below the elbow, and this doesn't affect the uniform shirt sleeve. How do we tell the difference between a compression sleeve, a compression shirt sleeve and a uniform sleeve? I've seen lots of shirts that are difficult to differentiate.

Situation is this: Little League rules, 9-10U District Tourney, in between innings, the 3rd Baseman picks up the game ball at the edge of the mound and begins to toss the ball with the shortstop, and pitcher until the catcher is at the plate. Third baseman never toed the rubber and never warmed up with the catcher. Offensive team claims that since he picked up the ball, he is now the new pitcher. Tourney director never found specific mention in rule book, but umpire judgement was that since he didn't toe the rubber, he's not the new pitcher. Who's right and can you cite a specific rule? Thanks, Ax3

I have never seen a pitcher do what I saw in yesterday’s FED game, which was 1/4 finals of county tourney. F1 for home team is the dominant pitcher in the county and has (had) an unblemished record as a sophomore. He has used this motion all year without anyone making him alter it. With no runners, righty F1 starts with his pivot foot parallel to the rubber with his non-pivot foot also parallel to the rubber at a comfortable shoulder’s width apart. While standing erect on the mound, with his torso facing 3B, he took his sign with his hands at his sides. He then brought his hands together as he raised them over his head, stepped back with his non-pivot foot, twisting his torso so that he was facing HP, and continued his delivery so that it appeared more like a windup than a set position. With runners, he started in the same exact way, but he went through his windup in a traditional set position procedure. Opposing coach wanted to know if the first scenario was legal. I told him that the delivery appeared to me to be a new wrinkle on the set position, but F1 was not doing anything specifically that violated any pitching restrictions because there were no stops and the motion was continuous. My partner and I discussed it and we both came to the same conclusion that weird did not equal illegal. Our view was that he was pitching from the set position in both scenarios. Thoughts? Did we miss it? Fire away!

Our Association is having a dandy time dealing with this topic, I would like to get some feedback on how this is handled. The situation is using a FED rule set under 6-1-2. The discussion centers around the current fad of the pitcher standing in the windup position with THE HEELS OF BOTH FEET touching the front edge of the pitcher's plate prior to delivery. Can the pitcher legally deliver a pitch from this position? Our rule interpreter says no. However, a reading of the BRD Section 406 denotes, "In the windup position the pitcher must stand with his non-pivot foot on or behind a line extending through the FRONT EDGE of the pitcher's plate. (6-1-2) PENALTY: ball/balk if a pitch is delivered." Carl Childress notes that at a TASO state meeting in January 2010, he asked Kyle McNeely (NFHS Rules Committee Member): "Is that legal?" Answer: "Yes." Several Association members indicated they recalled a picture or mechanigram showing this as illegal, while several others remember something very different (I am sure that sounds familiar to many of you on this website)!! Any help you can add to put this to rest would be appreciated.

I have a feeling this has been a common topic but I can't seem to find any answers that specifically answer this as right or wrong so please help... Situation: Runner on 1st only - Pitcher set position. Pitcher begins wind up and runner takes off to steal second base. Pitcher turns and throws to player covering 2nd base to tag runner on the steal. Now here's the controversy...all umpires I speak with on this give me different answers. Some say balk, some say legal. I know, and I have shown those calling it a balk, that rule 8.05(m)(b) gives a pitcher the right to make this move as 2nd base is not considered occupied in this situation. The next dilemma is this...If the pitcher makes this move and then the runner stops and goes back to 1st, I am being told that it is NOW a balk because the runner stalling his movement to 2nd cancels the pitchers justification to throw to 2nd "for the purpose of making a play" since the runner is not stealing. My problem, and hope for clarification for, is this accurate? Is the runner stalling a way to "defeat" the pitcher able to throw to 2nd during a 1st to 2nd steal or is it still a legal move whether the runner continues or stops? Thank you for any help and clarification I can get because it's been a point of contention since before the season began, we have 3 games left and I STILL don't have an answer so I don't let my pitchers make the move in fear of an unknown balk call because of an umpires interpretation of the two lines; (1)"for the purposes of making a play" and (2)"With a runner on first base the pitcher may make a complete turn, without hesitating toward first, and throw to second. This is not to be interpreted as throwing to an unoccupied base" Because depending on interpretation, the second line could cover the move as legal regardless of the runner stopping his steal or not. -Richard

Hi all ...   I've searched and found 'some' info I was looking for but not exaclty, so I wanted to post this to separate the issues.   In the posts I've found, I've seen that NON prescription sunglasses are legal in all codes.  Is this something that someone can cite, or, is it something that isn't written anywhere as illegal, therefore, it's allowable?   Thanks ...

Hi. I just read that if the pitcher is not on the rubber and the catcher gives the pitch signals it is a balk? How true is this statement?

R2, R3. Pitcher forgets that R1 stole 2b the previous pitch. He comes set, then all in one motion he steps back and feints to 1B where there's nobody. Legal, Illegal? Same situation, except throws it out of play. Place the runners.

This came up in a game I was doing because the pitcher high school pitcher was taking forever to pitch the ball. In Massachusetts we play MLB rules. So with the bases unoccupied the pitcher has 12 seconds to pitch the ball once he has received it from the catcher. Rule 8.04 The situation I had is what happens if the bases are occupied. How many seconds does the pitcher have now to pitch the ball? Is there a rule we can go by?

Question: This is the exact verbage from OBR Rule 8.02: 8.02 The pitcher shall not— (a) (1) While in the 18-foot circle surrounding the pitcher’s plate, touch the ball after touching his mouth or lips, or touch his mouth or lips while he is in contact with the pitcher’s plate. The pitcher must clearly wipe the fingers of his pitching hand dry before touching the ball or the pitcher’s plate. EXCEPTION: Provided it is agreed to by both managers, the umpire prior to the start of a game played in cold weather, may permit the pitcher to blow on his hand. PENALTY: For violation of this part of this rule the umpires shall immediately remove the ball from play and issue a warning to the pitcher. Any subsequent violation shall be called a ball. However, if the pitch is made and a batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a hit batsman or otherwise, and no other runner is put out before advancing at least one base, the play shall proceed without reference to the violation. Repeat offenders shall be subject to a fine by the League President. If I interpret this correctly, this would mean we could kill this before the pitch, warn, and/or award a ball if it was a repeat violation, correct? Are there any circumstances, short of no runners on base, that would cause us to let the pitch continue? It just seems like it is best to kill it before a pitch is made to avoid more argument(s) and confusion.

It was brought to my attention by the 1st base coach that the opposing pitcher's pivot foot was coming off of the rubber about an inch to an inch and a half during his delivery. After a couple of pitches I called an illegal pitch and informed the pitcher to try and remain on the rubber during delivery. During the half inning I examined the mound with the home plate umpire and we both determined that the pitcher's foot was sliding into the "toe hole" that was made by both side's pitchers. No additional illegal pitch calls were made the rest of the game due to the wet conditions and both teams constantly "in the hole". Should I have called an illegal pitch every time or just let the pitcher's pivot foot be good enough by being "in the hole"?

http://deadspin.com/5988229/pitcher-forgets-he-is-playing-baseball-tackles-runner-trying-to-score Has anyone else seen this? What is going through this pitcher's mind? EDIT: Thread already exists, locked to consolidate. http://umpire-empire.com/index.php/topic/52153-ummm-what-f1-tackles-r3/