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BLarson

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  1. let's say the ball was completely at rest on home plate. The batter has 1 foot entirely on the ground in foul territory (batter's box) and the other foot touches the ball (which is at rest on the plate) in fair territory. A lot of the discussion was from a batted ball that hits the batter while in the batter's box is a foul ball...I get that. But this is the batter potentially altering the outcome of a play with his actions.
  2. At our umpire meeting this weekend we debated this scenario: Batter hits/bunts a ball that comes to rest in fair territory on or around home plate with no one touching it first. The batter, now taking off for first has 1 foot in the batters box while the other foot steps on or touches the at rest ball (not intentionally). I am under the impression that the runner would be out for touching a live batted ball before fielder touches it.6.05(g) It wasn't a pitched ball that hit him in the box, nor was it a batted ball that hit the batter in the box.
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