C12

Hijack Alert How bout this no tag out.... https://www.mlb.com/video/yadi-m-ellis-on-out-at-home/c-31127041?tid=59730222 I'm sure this was discussed when it happened but as a Dodger fan this still bothers me.

Saw something similar: Less than 2 outs. R3 stealing, Batter swinging at strike 3, catcher fails to catch strike 3; BUT manages to recover the ball and tags R3 out at home, BR beaks for first on the dropped third strike, and is safe.....AND the pitcher was called for a balk. Whadya got? And do the number of outs matter? This was a 12u tournament under MLB rules several years ago and I can't remember the ruling.

I'm guessing here, but I think OP is asking if the act of pushing the ball into foul territory is legal. As if in pushing the ball foul would incur some other type of penalty...just a thought.

Run does not count. Even though R2 was tagged, he was still forced to run when the batter became a runner. R1 was forced off first to second, and R2 was forced off second to third.

This is much more than just a chatty and outgoing umpire. These are warning signs for some very inappropriate behavior. Rubbing shoulders and asking about alcohol are things no stranger should be doing to children. The fact that some kids have been annoyed shows they were uncomfortable with this person's behavior. I do not want to come out and accuse this person because this is a public forum. However, I have been a police officer for almost three decades, and in general terms very often child predators are in positions of trust and authority. You absolutely did the correct thing. This umpire should not be around children. If it were me I would have contacted local authorities. I would also contact other assignors / associations or leagues in your area. Again I am not accusing this person; but this is more than odd behavior. This is disturbing and suspicious behavior.

I think you're reading more into this. As @noumpere wrote, F5 reacted to the throw. I wrote R3 takes secondary lead on F1s first move. F1 throws to F5 who was NOT moving towards either the bag or R3. Upon seeing the throw to F5, R3 goes for home and is easily thrown out F5 to F2. I think most posts agree this should have been a balk as no play was being made on the runner.

And, I'm having a little trouble understanding the math. If F5 is "between 3b and the rubber" and R3 is "30 feet from F5", that's way too big a lead. Distance is approximation, and let me clarify. R3 is 30' from F5, not a 30' lead. F5 is not on the base but on the infield.

Oh boy, at the risk of getting skewered I'm gonna ask the balk question again. I know its been covered, without a real consensus but I just need a clarification. Situation is: 14u USSSA Tournament 60/90 OBR. Game 1. Outs don't matter, runner on 1st. Pitcher throws to F3 who is NOT on the bag or holding the runner. The throw was to F3 and not the base. The throw was poor as F3 had to move to his right to catch the ball, and no play on runner even possible. Umpires correctly call balk. Game 2, this time LHP, runner on 3rd w/ normal 3rd base lead. F5 not holding runner and about 20ft from runner and third base. On pitchers first movement, runner takes secondary lead and is now approx 30ft from F5. LHP throws to F5, R3 runs for home, F5 throws to F2 and runner easily tagged out. No balk called. Umpires say they were making a play on the runner. and the throw was towards the bag. (F5 was in a line between F1 and 3rd base, but not on or near the bag). My question is I get the no-balk call on throwing to an occupied base, but making a play on the runner? And is the making a play on a runner provision only applicable to 1st base? It seems other posts with this issue only cover 1st base.

Just one question, though: what's "clear confusion"? Its like "jumbo shrimp" Meant to say, clearly there was confusion www.youtube.com/watch?v=KmKOVdAGtzM

Interesting batting out of order question. 14U, modified OBR with continuous batting order. Visiting team is batting 10 players. Batters #7 and #8 have been put out (2 outs), batter #10 comes to bat and strikes out to end the inning. To start the next inning batter #9 comes to bat and strikes out. (1 out). Batter #1 comes to the plate. Home team coach calls time and brings the BOO to umpires attention. There was clear confusion but the ultimate decision was to nullify batter #9's strike out, call batter #1 out and bring batter #2 to the plate. Umpire said the home team was not going to get two outs. One out for the batter #9's strike out and the BOO. Was this the right decision?

That's a good example, but not the one I was thinking of. The play happened this season. With one out, fly ball for the second out. R3 tags (I thought it was Van Slyke), but jogs down to HP. R1, who took off on contact is out at 1B before re-touching for the 3rd out. Umpires rule run did not touch HP before 3rd out at first.

Are you saying the defense now loses the opportunity to appeal the 2B retouch on the original play? And if so, does that not unnecessarily punish the defense. Or does the defense lose the right to appeal when they threw the ball out of bounds. In other words, it is up to the defense to keep the ball in play, and by allowing the ball to become dead (thrown into DBT) they lose any advantage they may have had to get an out? Im not trying to be argumentative. I agree with the ruling, I just want to understand the reasoning and how to handle an irate DC should a similar situation come up. I would think a simple, "You need to keep the ball in play, coach." would suffice

Earlier in the season, involving the Dodgers, there was a play that shows an excellent example of this time play. I can't find the highlight; but essentially the tagging runner Does Not touch home Before the third out is recorded on the runner attempting to tag up on first. It was a great play.

I was listening to the Dodgers home broadcast when this play happened. Commentator and former MLB player Rick Monday actually has a rule book with him in the booth. He gave an excellent explanation of the play. Later when I watched it on MLBTV...I can't believe Harold Reynolds is still so ignorant of the rules. So frustrating!!

Sorry I can't find the answer to this innocuous question. I know a batter can swing at a bounced pitch. But can a pitch that bounces through the strike zone be a "called" strike? Ive never seen it, and I pity the umpire who calls it. My guess is that Yes, its a strike but who wants that end of the stick?