jmpnjmy

Chris was probably just honoring the ejection being begged for by Snitker

Glad to help, guys

False, but I'm not going to hijack the thread. Now you have me curious. Let's go for it. How can you have a foul tip carom off of a 1st baseman?

That's what I was leaning toward but would love the fed ref to with them.

Positive. I quoted it directly from the test I can only choose one answer. Positive. I quoted it directly from the test I can only choose one answer. lol. nevermind. I misread your answer jax

ok the "Key point" lost me. It's not possible to have a foul tip carom off the first baseman.

Ok great brain-trust of the Umpire-Empire, I am having trouble with two questions on my fed test. Help would be much appreciated. If you can help with fed references that would be great. 1 A foul ball caroms off the first baseman and is caught by the catcher while still in flight A) The ball remains live and in play B) The ball becomes dead immediately C) It is a delayed dead ball 2 The coach is expected to be a role model for civility and sportsmanship to his players T F For the first one I'm leaning towards A but I can't find anything in the case book. For the second one, it's the civility that's throwing me. I can't find any mention of civility in the expectations of the coach, sportsmanship yes but not civility.

OK, I don't want to rehash the LL play, but of all the possible calls on that sitch (interference, obstruction, or that's nothing), I think OBS was by far the minority opinion (which as TH points out everyone is entitled to). I'm looking for a reason why 8.05(d) doesn't apply to the OP. If you say a feint is not a play, then why is it included as an option in 8.05(d) ? My question hasn't. If you are balking F1 you have to have a rule to justify it. If you are calling a balk, what rule did F1 break, and why doesn't the exception in 8.05(d) apply? I have a 8.05(d) violation....HOWEVER, there's not a ton of information here in the OP to describe exactly what happened ...it's a HTBT .... True that

So by your logic, if F1 does throw to 3B then you wouldn't have a runner and the ball either and therefore, no play. So by this logic, the throw to 3B would be a balk violation of 8.05(d) a throw to an unoccupied base without a play. You can't have it both ways. What I'm saying is that for there to be a play you must have both the ball and the runner. If F1 throws the ball to third and there is no runner, what play is being made at that unoccupied base? It's a balk all day long. If F1 feints the throw to the unoccupied base then you still don't have a play because you still don't have both ball and runner. Also a balk

For the play to happen you have to have ball and runner. In your situation you don't have either at third.

After I signal and verbalize the strike, (but not strike three) I go straight to the safe signal with a verbal "No catch"

1 out of 100? Is it that many?

My NFHS umpire manual is in a landfill somewhere. Recycle man!!!! I gave mine to my daughter for a paper mache project

Wow, I laughed at and felt sorry for this guy at the same time. BTW Boom goes the dynamite.

I had an experienced (senior) umpire tell me that if the pitcher has white laces use those as a guide. When you start having trouble seeing them from behind the plate, it's to dark.