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Guest Brandon

jNew umpire with questions regarding interference and obstruction

Question

1) If a batted ball hits R1, I know he is out and all other runners return to the last base occupied, but what happens to the batter? Does he re-bat with the count that existed before the interference took place?

2) Under NFHS, can a fielder only block the base when he has the ball? I had a play with a runner stealing third and I ruled obstruction because the third baseman dropped the catchers throw, but was still blocking the base as he proceeded to pick up the ball and tag the runner. The coach believed as long as there was a play being made at the base you could block the base and told me I needed to read the rule book. I believe I am right, but wanted to make sure.

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1) batter gets first base and is credited with a single in the scorebook. I believe on a tailor made double play ball that hits R1 going to second, you could get two outs (batter/runner also out) on this in FED, but not in OBR unless it was "willful and deliberate" Another exception to the batter/runner getting first base would be if another runner interferes with a foul popup. Batter would just continue at-bat with another strike.

2) I'll let someone else handle this as I hardly ever do FED - but it sounds like obstruction to me. 

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10 minutes ago, Gfoley4 said:

1) batter gets first base and is credited with a single in the scorebook. I believe on a tailor made double play ball that hits R1 going to second, you could get two outs (batter/runner also out) on this in FED, but not in OBR unless it was "willful and deliberate" Another exception to the batter/runner getting first base would be if another runner interferes with a foul popup. Batter would just continue at-bat with another strike.

2) I'll let someone else handle this as I hardly ever do FED - but it sounds like obstruction to me. 

What would happen if it was bases loaded and the runner on second running towards third was hit by a line drive. Would the batter get first base and the runner on first go to second?

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8 minutes ago, Guest Brandon said:

What would happen if it was bases loaded and the runner on second running towards third was hit by a line drive. Would the batter get first base and the runner on first go to second?

yes

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2 hours ago, Guest Brandon said:

What would happen if it was bases loaded and the runner on second running towards third was hit by a line drive. Would the batter get first base and the runner on first go to second?

Yes -- that's the meaning of "runners advance, if forced" in the rules book.

On your second play, it's HTBT and it's going to depend on when the runner was really hindered and when the ball was dropped.

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3 hours ago, Guest Brandon said:

The coach ... told me I needed to read the rule book.

And put that coach on a short leash for the rest of the game.

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If a coach told me to read the rule book he probably wouldn't be long for the game. That's just me though. 

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4 hours ago, Guest Brandon said:

2) Under NFHS, can a fielder only block the base when he has the ball? I had a play with a runner stealing third and I ruled obstruction because the third baseman dropped the catchers throw, but was still blocking the base as he proceeded to pick up the ball and tag the runner.

Shortcut rule: "blocking the base without the ball is OBS" in FED.

Real rule: blocking the base without the ball is OBS when the fielder blocking the base hinders the runner's advance. No hindrance = no OBS.

If you ruled that the runner was hindered by a fielder without possession of the ball, then that would be OBS by rule.

4 hours ago, Guest Brandon said:

The coach believed as long as there was a play being made at the base you could block the base and told me I needed to read the rule book.

Coach is wrong and an asshat. That's 2 strikes.

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15 minutes ago, maven said:

Shortcut rule: "blocking the base without the ball is OBS" in FED.

Real rule: blocking the base without the ball is OBS when the fielder blocking the base hinders the runner's advance. No hindrance = no OBS.

If you ruled that the runner was hindered by a fielder without possession of the ball, then that would be OBS by rule.

Coach is wrong and an asshat. That's 2 strikes.

Coach is not entirely wrong - depending on the rule set.

In OBR you can block the base if you need to be there to field a throw which is "close enough" (for want of better words)   i.e. in the act of fielding. Up until fairly recently that was also true in FED.

And there are plenty of posts in this and other forums where an umpire made a wrong call.

Lack of knowledge isn't limited to coaches and fans.

So just hold off on the asshat stuff OK? 

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The coach IS entirely wrong, as the OP specified FED.

Coach is not an asshat for being wrong. He's an asshat for telling someone he needed to read the rules.

You post what you want, and I'll do the same. OK?

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6 hours ago, Guest Brandon said:

1) If a batted ball hits R1, I know he is out and all other runners return to the last base occupied, but what happens to the batter? Does he re-bat with the count that existed before the interference took place?

 

6 hours ago, Gfoley4 said:

I believe on a tailor made double play ball that hits R1 going to second, you could get two outs (batter/runner also out) on this in FED, but not in OBR unless it was "willful and deliberate" Another exception to the batter/runner getting first base would be if another runner interferes with a foul popup. Batter would just continue at-bat with another strike.

I don't know of any provision in any rule set that allows a batter to continue an at-bat after an INT call on a batted ball since the ball was put in play, then is dead and the player who interferes is out. The BR is awarded 1B. @Stk004 posted a video illustrating your popup example yesterday. Here's another:

http://m.mlb.com/video/v1530313583/baltb-morrison-makes-the-catch-despite-interference/?query=interference

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17 minutes ago, ElkOil said:

 

I don't know of any provision in any rule set that allows a batter to continue an at-bat after an INT call on a batted ball since the ball was put in play, then is dead and the player who interferes is out. The BR is awarded 1B. @Stk004 posted a video illustrating your popup example yesterday. Here's another:

http://m.mlb.com/video/v1530313583/baltb-morrison-makes-the-catch-despite-interference/?query=interference

I can't tell if you're disagreeing with me about interference on a foul popup? Is the batter returning not the case? I recalled that from a past post on this very site.

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21 minutes ago, Gfoley4 said:

I can't tell if you're disagreeing with me about interference on a foul popup? Is the batter returning not the case? I recalled that from a past post on this very site.

As far as I know, the batter returning is never the case in an INT call. If INT is called on a runner when the batter hasn't put the ball in play, the batter continues his at bat. If a runner is called for INT on a batted ball, the interferer is out and BR awarded 1B.

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9 minutes ago, ElkOil said:

As far as I know, the batter returning is never the case in an INT call. If INT is called on a runner when the batter hasn't put the ball in play, the batter continues his at bat. If a runner is called for INT on a batted ball, the interferer is out and BR awarded 1B.

http://www.closecallsports.com/2012/08/case-plays-infield-interference-foul.html This play has a lot of aspects, but the end result was that R1 interfered on a foul ball so the batter continued his at-bat

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1 hour ago, Gfoley4 said:

http://www.closecallsports.com/2012/08/case-plays-infield-interference-foul.html This play has a lot of aspects, but the end result was that R1 interfered on a foul ball so the batter continued his at-bat

On a foul ball, INT or not, the batter stays at the plate. But your OP stated a batted ball hits a runner. That's a different situation, and BR is awarded 1B, as I said. There isn't a situation in which the batter returns to the plate after a fair batted ball -- he'll either be put out or he'll acquire a base somehow.

You asked if that batter "re-bats." No he doesn't since his at-bat hasn't come to an end. He remains at bat because he hit a foul ball.

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1 hour ago, ElkOil said:

On a foul ball, INT or not, the batter stays at the plate. But your OP stated a batted ball hits a runner. That's a different situation, and BR is awarded 1B, as I said. There isn't a situation in which the batter returns to the plate after a fair batted ball -- he'll either be put out or he'll acquire a base somehow.

You asked if that batter "re-bats." No he doesn't since his at-bat hasn't come to an end. He remains at bat because he hit a foul ball.

you are confusing me with the guest who asked the question. I simply added the comment about a situation where the batter/runner does not get first base on interference.

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58 minutes ago, Gfoley4 said:

you are confusing me with the guest who asked the question. I simply added the comment about a situation where the batter/runner does not get first base on interference.

Was it not you who said, "I believe on a tailor made double play ball that hits R1 going to second, you could get two outs (batter/runner also out) on this in FED, but not in OBR unless it was "willful and deliberate" Another exception to the batter/runner getting first base would be if another runner interferes with a foul popup. Batter would just continue at-bat with another strike."?

There is no instance in which a fair batted ball would return the BR to the box. I will double down and say again that your example of a popup was addressed in a video @Stk004 posted and another link that I posted.

I was referencing your post and the OP at the same time. Perhaps it was not as eloquent as it could have been, but I'll stand by my responses to the OP and your posts.

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11 minutes ago, ElkOil said:

Was it not you who said, "I believe on a tailor made double play ball that hits R1 going to second, you could get two outs (batter/runner also out) on this in FED, but not in OBR unless it was "willful and deliberate" Another exception to the batter/runner getting first base would be if another runner interferes with a foul popup. Batter would just continue at-bat with another strike."?

There is no instance in which a fair batted ball would return the BR to the box. I will double down and say again that your example of a popup was addressed in a video @Stk004 posted and another link that I posted.

I was referencing your post and the OP at the same time. Perhaps it was not as eloquent as it could have been, but I'll stand by my responses to the OP and your posts.

I never mentioned an instance where a fair batted ball would return the BR to the box. I mentioned a foul popup... your link was a fair popup.

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2 hours ago, Gfoley4 said:

I never mentioned an instance where a fair batted ball would return the BR to the box. I mentioned a foul popup... your link was a fair popup.

Hold the phone.

Do you mean to tell me I've read these posts about a hundred times and never saw that you typed "foul popup?"

Jeez Louise. Sorry about that.

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Brandon:

 a baserunner hit by a batted ball has committed Offensive Interference. In Offensive Interference, the following things happen:

(1) the ball is Dead. Right then, "Time!".

(2) the guy who committed the interference is Out. (In your case, it's the guy who got hit by the ball)

(3) all runners return to the last base legally occupied at the time of the Interference, (unless forced by the batter-runner).

(4) the batter goes to first (unless he was the guy that interfered; then see (2)). (and I think it's scored a fielder's Choice, but I could be wrong).

Aside from runners hit by batted balls, you'll see this when runners blast the fielders trying to field a batted ball. The penalty is the same.

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