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VolUmp

Game Ends on perfect Squeeze Bunt

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OBR Rules Set.   7-inning Game**

Sitch A)

Bases Loaded, 0 outs, tie game, bottom of 7th.

Offensive team executes squeeze bunt.

R3 touches home.  R2 touches 3B.  R1 touches 2B.

B-R touches 1B, but AFTER being thrown out by F2-F3.

WHEN DOES THE GAME END?

————————————————————————————

Sitch B)

R2, R3, 1 out, tie game, bottom of 7th.

Offensive team executes squeeze bunt.

R3 touches home.  R2 touches 3B.

B-R never touches 1B, but joins in the celebration with his teammates from about half way to 1B.

WHEN DOES THE GAME END?

————————————————————————————

Edited by VolUmp
7 inning game

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HT wins both, since the out on the BR is not the 3rd out, all other runners touched, the run scores no matter what happened to BR.

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The game ends when the winning run scores.  That's (more or less) right from the rules .

As a practical matter, it ends when the winning run can't be (or isn't) "undone" by the defense.  SO, in play 1, it wouldn't really end when the run scores, because the defense is still playing on the BR and if the defense is successful (as in your play) the game will continue.

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OBR rules, however, you don't specify what league, so, how many inning game? 

 

Since the situations both say 7th inning and at least #2 implies that it's a 7 inning game, so..... hard to answer without knowing if it's a 7 or 9 inning game. 

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4 hours ago, noumpere said:

The game ends when the winning run scores.  That's (more or less) right from the rules .

As a practical matter, it ends when the winning run can't be (or isn't) "undone" by the defense.  SO, in play 1, it wouldn't really end when the run scores, because the defense is still playing on the BR and if the defense is successful (as in your play) the game will continue.

Did the OP change the outs after you read it or did you, as I did when I first read it, gloss over the number of outs assuming 2.

In sit 2 where did R1 come from?

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4 hours ago, noumpere said:

The game ends when the winning run scores.  That's (more or less) right from the rules .

As a practical matter, it ends when the winning run can't be (or isn't) "undone" by the defense.  SO, in play 1, it wouldn't really end when the run scores, because the defense is still playing on the BR and if the defense is successful (as in your play) the game will continue.

Why would the game continue?  The B-R out at first is only the first out  (or the second out in the second play)?

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11 hours ago, VolUmp said:

OBR Rules Set

Sitch A)

Bases Loaded, 0 outs, tie game, bottom of 7th.

Offensive team executes squeeze bunt.

R3 touches home.  R2 touches 3B.  R1 touches 2B.

B-R touches 1B, but AFTER being thrown out by F2-F3.

WHEN DOES THE GAME END?

————————————————————————————

Sitch B)

R2, R3, 1 out, tie game, bottom of 7th.

Offensive team executes squeeze bunt.

R3 touches home.  R2 touches 3B.  R1 touches 2B.

B-R never touches 1B, but joins in the celebration with his teammates from about half way to 1B.

WHEN DOES THE GAME END?

————————————————————————————

Both end when I holler "Ballgame!"

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Sorry guys.  I screwed up twice with details in the OP

7-inning game.   No R1 in Sitch 2.

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I feel like this is a trick question. HT wins in both. BR doesn't really matter because he will not be the third out.

 

 

Sent from my iPhone using Tapatalk

 

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6 hours ago, VolUmp said:

Sorry guys.  I screwed up twice with details in the OP

7-inning game.   No R1 in Sitch 2.

Same generic answers as before.  I am left wondering why you are asking -- it's like there is supposed to be some "trick" to the question.

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4 hours ago, White47 said:

I feel like this is a trick question. HT wins in both. BR doesn't really matter because he will not be the third out.

 

3 hours ago, noumpere said:

Same generic answers as before.  I am left wondering why you are asking -- it's like there is supposed to be some "trick" to the question.

White47 ... noumpere ... are you the same entity??

I screwed up two important details in the OP ... that's all.  I fixed them with an edit to stop the confusion.

I know the answers to my questions.  The very reason I'm posting is, I had sitch B the other night in a tournament  I called, "Ballgame!" when R3 touched the plate, as there was no force created by the bunt, and only 1 out. There was no argument, but I looked back as I was gathering up my gear and throwing baseballs back to the home team dugout, and I realized the defense wouldn't leave the field.  The HC had told them to stay put because the batter never touched 1B.  Rather than go over to him and clarify why I called ballgame, my partner and I simply walked off the field for our break between games.  The losing coach tracked me down before his next game and asked if it would have made a difference if bases were loaded.  I told him yes, that any time there is a force created in this scenario, we had a potential to take the run off the board.  There are several ways it could happen with bases loaded.

Now, I know FED has screwed up this rule and created a bad Case Book Ref for it, so I'm not going to discuss that in this post.

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22 minutes ago, Matt said:

Why is any umpire announcing when the game ends?

It's in the back of all the code's umpire manuals under signals. "game" hands up.

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1 hour ago, Matt said:

Why is any umpire announcing when the game ends?

WOW.  Just WOW.  Matt, try "Ask the umpire" until you've read the rulebook.  No flaming there.

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Well, this is getting out of hand quickly. I think I quit following this discussion. Plus, I'm not really sure I'm visualizing the OP correctly anyway. 

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You guys should really get some sleep...I'm closing this one also. 

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