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Gausman balk call Saturday


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Guest Baseball17

I didn't see this, but at a family gathering Sunday, one of my brothers asked me if I had Tripp Gibson's phone number to ask him about the call (Tripp was getting his start umpiring 13/14 y/o travel ball when my son played, we saw him often).  I had no idea what he was talking about, what I've read since was the call was delay of game, as there was no play on the runner at third, as the throw went to Machado, who was not near the base.  I'm not an umpire, just always trying to learn when I see something for the first time.  I'm assuming this is correct under OBR, what about FED and/or NCAA?

 

Thanks.

 

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8 minutes ago, johnpatrick said:

 I guess the new rule prohibiting a fake to 3B comes into play here.

Correct: throwing to F5 away from the base is feinting a throw to a base. When MLB changed the rule several years ago, 3B became the new 1B: whatever is illegal at 1B is now illegal at 3B.

So, just as throwing to F3 away from 1B would be a balk, so now is throwing to F5 away from (occupied) 3B.

People are sometimes confused by this call because they mistakenly think "feinting = no throw." But the rule requires stepping and throwing to a base, and F1 may "feint" either by not throwing (feinting a throw) or throwing somewhere other than a base (feinting a throw to a base).

The latter was the call here.

 

 

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I didn't see this, but at a family gathering Sunday, one of my brothers asked me if I had Tripp Gibson's phone number to ask him about the call (Tripp was getting his start umpiring 13/14 y/o travel ball when my son played, we saw him often).  I had no idea what he was talking about, what I've read since was the call was delay of game, as there was no play on the runner at third, as the throw went to Machado, who was not near the base.  I'm not an umpire, just always trying to learn when I see something for the first time.  I'm assuming this is correct under OBR, what about FED and/or NCAA?
 
Thanks.
 

In MLB rules, 3B is treated exactly like 1B. Under interpretation, a throw not towards the bag or to a fielder in the vicinity to make a play is a balk (when towards 1B or 3B).


This move would be legal in FED and NCAA rules, as a feint to 3B is still allowed in those codes.

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In FED, if this play had been to 1B as per 6.2.4J and called a balk, would it be interpreted as a feint to first, or failing to throw to first base in an attempt to retire or drive back a runner?  Or is it the same thing? 

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In FED, if this play had been to 1B as per 6.2.4J and called a balk, would it be interpreted as a feint to first, or failing to throw to first base in an attempt to retire or drive back a runner?  Or is it the same thing? 

It's interpreted as a feint to 1B, which is rule 6-2-4a.



The 'attempt to retire or drive back a runner' rule is 6-2-4b and has to do with feinting or throwing to an unoccupied base. The 'occupied' part of that rule has to do with the runners... Not the fielders.

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1 hour ago, ALStripes17 said:


It's interpreted as a feint to 1B, which is rule 6-2-4a.



The 'attempt to retire or drive back a runner' rule is 6-2-4b and has to do with feinting or throwing to an unoccupied base. The 'occupied' part of that rule has to do with the runners... Not the fielders.

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I was referring to CP 6.2.4J 

how would you explain to the coach?  Feint to 1st or failure to throw to F3 who had no play on the runner?  Since a throw was made, it would just seem difficult to explain a feint in FED.

TX for the response!

 

 

 

 

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I was referring to CP 6.2.4J 
how would you explain to the coach?  Feint to 1st or failure to throw to F3 who had no play on the runner?  Since a throw was made, it would just seem difficult to explain a feint in FED.
TX for the response!
 
 
 
 

Mavens post above answers your question

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13 hours ago, Tborze said:

I was referring to CP 6.2.4J 

how would you explain to the coach?  Feint to 1st or failure to throw to F3 who had no play on the runner?  Since a throw was made, it would just seem difficult to explain a feint in FED.

Just say "Didn't throw directly to the base or to F3 who had a play."  You don't need to get any more technical than that, or try to figure out / tell the coach whether it's a vioaltin pf part 1 or part b of the rule

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21 hours ago, ALStripes17 said:


It's interpreted as a feint to 1B, which is rule 6-2-4a.



The 'attempt to retire or drive back a runner' rule is 6-2-4b and has to do with feinting or throwing to an unoccupied base. The 'occupied' part of that rule has to do with the runners... Not the fielders.

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So, can we use this to deal with R2, leading off and pitcher turns, steps towards second, but throws to the shortstop instead-thereby, driving back the runner?

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So, can we use this to deal with R2, leading off and pitcher turns, steps towards second, but throws to the shortstop instead-thereby, driving back the runner?

We don't care about this rule with 2B... Because we can feint to 2B.

In your mentioned scenario, there is a runner at 2B, which makes it nearly impossible to balk to 2B.

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