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Guest Eric Witthohn
I had a situation last night that luckily the coach did not question. My partner and I struggled to come up with a correct answer. I know that on a foul ball there is no rule that states the runners must touch up at their previous bases even though everyone thinks that there is.
Here is the situation we had:
Runner on 1st (R1) and third (R3) one out. As the pitcher come set at the mound R1 takes off to second and reaches second bases before the pitcher delivers the pitch. The pitch is then fouled off. The runner (R1) remained at second. My question was is the pitchers coach asked to return the runner back to first what should we have done? Time of pitch R1 had become R2 or is he still R1 from when pitcher was set?
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noumpere
True but most or at least too many believe it then becomes an appeal play or an automatic out or a do over and none of that is true. If the ball is put in play before the runners retouch then the bal
UmpJM
Rich, Me too. Here is what Evans has to say: JM
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