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Interference

TNCoach

By TNCoach
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TNCoach

TNCoach

Posted
Posted
FED rules. R1. Ball hit to SS. SS feeds to 2B for the force. 2B turns to throw to 1B but R1 comes in standing. 2B doesn't make a throw and may not have gotten him but it would have been close. 2B started to throw, pumped and hopped back to try again but held on because there was no chance then. Do we have interference?
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mstaylor
mstaylor

That is not a bad list except for 6. If you slide legally at the base and contact the fielder in front of the base or on top of the base, he is fair game. If he is beside it or behind it then it is a

Jocko
Jocko

Sometimes ya just gotta umpire

gobama84
gobama84

FPSR is a situation. No slide is required.

Mike Prince

Mike Prince

Posted
Posted

Let's say the umpire has interference here. What is the basis for calling the double play? If you have a DP here, please cite the rule that supports this.

True, rulebook says that a DP has to be obvious in the judgement of the umpire. By the description above my view is that we have a force at 2B, play on.
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LeoDev

LeoDev

Posted
Posted

INT on R1. R1 and BR are out. Force Play Slide Rule.

How is this FPSR? There is no slide in OP.

Taken from the latest Oregon SRI Bulletin:

Rule 8â€4â€2 reads: Any runner is out when he: B: does not legally slide and causes illegal contact and/or

illegally alters the actions of a fielder in the immediate act of making a play, or on a force play, does not

slide in a direct line between the bases. A runner may slide away from the fielder to avoid contact or

alter the play of the fielder. Runners are never required to slide, but if a runner elects to slide, the slide

must be legal. The force play slide rule can be enforced at all bases, including the plate.

I have a FPSR violation.

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Replacematt

Replacematt

Posted
Posted

INT on R1. R1 and BR are out. Force Play Slide Rule.

How is this FPSR? There is no slide in OP.

Taken from the latest Oregon SRI Bulletin:

Rule 8â€4â€2 reads: Any runner is out when he: B: does not legally slide and causes illegal contact and/or

illegally alters the actions of a fielder in the immediate act of making a play, or on a force play, does not

slide in a direct line between the bases. A runner may slide away from the fielder to avoid contact or

alter the play of the fielder. Runners are never required to slide, but if a runner elects to slide, the slide

must be legal. The force play slide rule can be enforced at all bases, including the plate.

I have a FPSR violation.

That provision only refers to the execution and/or consequences of a slide. There was no slide, so this clause does not apply.

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TNCoach

TNCoach

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My basic thing was my player did not attempt a throw but I had interference. The field umpire said he had to make the attempt to get the out for there to be interference. I asked if he had to attempt the throw because he risked throwing it away and the umpire said he had to make the throw to get it.

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Mike Prince

Mike Prince

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My basic thing was my player did not attempt a throw but I had interference. The field umpire said he had to make the attempt to get the out for there to be interference. I asked if he had to attempt the throw because he risked throwing it away and the umpire said he had to make the throw to get it.

Well that explanation is definitely not consistent with the definition or rule. A throw (or lack thereof) has no role in the determination of interference. In this case the call is if the retired runner affected the fielder's play on the runner at first.

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TNCoach

TNCoach

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And the same on a catcher's throw, correct? Had a steal of 3B and the batter backed out of the box into my catcher's throwing lane and my catcher did not attempt the throw.

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noumpere

noumpere

Posted
Posted

Let's start over ...

If you don't have to slide, and R1 didn't do anything illegal, and F4 just "didn't throw the ball" how is that interference ?

In HS ball which this was you need to slide legally or run in a direction away from the play. So if the fielder was still on the base or at least in that line the burden is on the runner and the runner ran right to the base we have the violation and two outs. Now if the fielder had moved to one side or the other as he came across the base and the runner ran right to the base then we have no violation.

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noumpere

noumpere

Posted
Posted

And the same on a catcher's throw, correct? Had a steal of 3B and the batter backed out of the box into my catcher's throwing lane and my catcher did not attempt the throw.

If the catcher did not attempt a throw then there couldnt of been interference. In the play at second it looks to me as though F4 did attempt a throw but couldnt or didnt throw because of the runner. If you catcher attempted a throw but didnt throw because of the batter then it would of been interfeerence.

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TNCoach

TNCoach

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No throw. A pump without the throw to be more clear about attempt... Both simply pumped to make the throw but couldn't.

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sdix00

sdix00

Posted
Posted

Agree...just because there is no slide doesn't mean you can't get two. In FED it's pretty much automatic if you have interference.

I agree that you CAN get two.

I think I need to clarify, however, that I do not believe simple interference on a force play is an automatic DP.

To clarify:

1. An illegal slide on a force play is an automatic DP.

2. Simple interference on a force play CAN be a DP IF the interference actually prevents a DP.

Judgement required in #1 ONLY to determine legality of the slide.

Judgement required in #2 to determine interference AND possibility of DP.

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NWA_UMP

NWA_UMP

Posted
Posted

If I have a batter that clearly steps back out of the box with F2 stepping behind to clear him for an attempt at 3rd...I will call batter's interference. If I judge that the catcher's opportunity was hindered or interfered with I will get the batter, period. Lack of throw does not constitute no intent to retire the runner. How do you judge BI on a throw to second? If I have a batter that steps across the plate and "blocks" the catchers path w/o contact is that interference? Heck yeah! A good catcher will make it OBVIOUS that he has been interfered with by drawing contact but some won't. Same with the throw to 3rd on a steal. If F2 is clearing behind the Batter and his path gets blocked by the batter stepping back I will ring it up. The catcher had his opportunity to make a play taken away from him by the batter.

The play at second is a no brain'er...FPSR. If he does not get down, give up or get out of the way he is out and I WILL get a DP, Period.

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carolinablue

carolinablue

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I'm not sure the FPSR applies here.That refers to an illegal slide which did not occur here. It could be simple INT. which would require judgement as to if he could have had two absent the INT. 8.4.2 comment.

Also, as a few others have stated, the runner has really done nothing illegal. He ran from 1st to 2nd and did not slide which he is not required to do. I see no rule support to say he has to run away from the play either.8-4-2a(1) only says that if he does run away from the play to avoid it that it is not illegal.

The language of 8-4-2b(2) is a little confusing to me. It say any runner is out if he does not legally slide and causes illegal contact and/or alters the actions of a fielder in the immediate act of making a play, or on a force play does not slide in a direct line between the bases.

Does the terms does not legally slide and does not slide in a direct line between the bases mean he has to legally slide or does it mean only if he chooses to slide it has to be legal. I would say the latter based on part 2. of the same rule which says runners are never required to slide.

.

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grayhawk

grayhawk

Posted
Posted

The play at second is a no brain'er...FPSR. If he does not get down, give up or get out of the way he is out and I WILL get a DP, Period.

Even if the DP is not possible absent the interference?

Trying to think through this without any of my reference material. I agree that it's not FPSR (there was no slide). However, if you rule that it's interference, don't we need to get an out? R1 was already out on this play, so wouldn't BR be out for the interference on the now retired R1? I assume that we are ruling that the interference was intentional since that is required on a thrown ball.

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